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Friday 26 July 2013

UGC_NET DEC 2011 SOLVED PAPER1 PART-2

UGC NET JUNE 2013 SYLLABUS, MODEL PAPER/ PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED QUESTION PAPERS.
UGC NET (NATIONAL ELIGIBILITY TEST) : OLD SOLVED/PREVIOUS EXAM QUESTION PAPERS WITH SOLUTIONS AND EXPLANATIONS AND FREE STUDY MATERIALS.
COMPUTER MEMORY BASED PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS I, II AND III TO PREPARE AND PASS THE UGC NET/SLET ENTRANCE EXAMINATION WITH HIGH PERCENTAGE.
COMPUTER BASIC QUESTIONS FOR BANK EXAM, HTAT, CTAT, TAT, UGC-NET, INTERVIEW AND OTHER EXAM'S, WHERE BASIC QUESTION'S ARE REQUIRED. 


NOTE: Move mouse over your answer to see your  answer is right or wrong.

31. Which of the following pollutants affects the respiratory tract in humans ?
(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Nitric oxide
(C) Sulphur di-oxide
(D) Aerosols

32. Which of the following pollutants is not emitted from the transport sector ?
(A) Oxides of nitrogen
(B) Chlorofluorocarbons
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Poly aromatic hydrocarbons

33. Which of the following sources of energy has the maximum potential in India ?
(A) Solar energy
(B) Wind energy
(C) Ocean thermal energy
(D) Tidal energy

34. Which of the following is not a source of pollution in soil ?
(A) Transport sector
(B) Agriculture sector
(C) Thermal power plants
(D) Hydropower plants
ANS TELL ME. 

35. Which of the following is not a natural hazard ?
(A) Earthquake
(B) Tsunami
(C) Flash floods
(D) Nuclear accident

36. Ecological footprint represents
(A) area of productive land and water to meet the resources requirement
(B) energy consumption
(C) CO2 emissions per person
(D) forest cover

37. The aim of value education to inculcate in students is
(A) the moral values
(B) the social values
(C) the political values
(D) the economic values

38. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of University Grants Commission of India.
(A) 10
(B) 07
(C) 08
(D) 09

39. One-rupee currency note in India bears the signature of
(A) The President of India
(B) Finance Minister of India
(C) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(D) Finance Secretary of Government of India

40. Match the List – I with the List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :List – I                                                                            List – II
(Commissions and Committees)                               (Year)
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission         (i) 2005
(b) Paul H. Appleby Committee I                               (ii) 1962
(c) K. Santhanam Committee                                    (iii) 1966
(d) Second Administrative Reforms Commission  (iv) 1953
Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

41. Constitutionally the registration and recognition of political parties is the function performed by
(A) The State Election Commission of respective States
(B) The Law Ministry of Government of India
(C) The Election Commission of India
(D) Election Department of the State Governments

42. The members of Gram Sabha are
(A) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and all elected Panchas
(B) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and Village level worker
(C) Sarpanch, Gram Sevak and elected Panchas
(D) Registered voters of Village Panchayat

43. By which of the following methods the true evaluation of the students is possible ?
(A) Evaluation at the end of the course.
(B) Evaluation twice in a year.
(C) Continuous evaluation.
(D) Formative evaluation.

44. Suppose a student wants to share his problems with his teacher and he visits the teacher’s house for the purpose, the teacher should
(A) contact the student’s parents and solve his problem.
(B) suggest him that he should never visit his house.
(C) suggest him to meet the principal and solve the problem.
(D) extend reasonable help and boost his morale.

45. When some students are deliberately attempting to disturb the discipline of the class by making mischief,
what will be your role as a teacher ?
(A) Expelling those students.
(B) Isolate those students.
(C) Reform the group with your authority.
(D) Giving them an opportunity for introspection and improve their behaviour.

46. Which of the following belongs to a projected aid ?
(A) Blackboard
(B) Diorama
(C) Epidiascope
(D) Globe

47. A teacher is said to be fluent in asking questions, if he can ask
(A) meaningful questions
(B) as many questions as possible
(C) maximum number of questions in a fixed time
(D) many meaningful questions in a fixed time

48. Which of the following qualities is most essential for a teacher ?
(A) He should be a learned person.
(B) He should be a well dressed person.
(C) He should have patience.
(D) He should be an expert in his subject.

49. A hypothesis is a
(A) law
(B) canon
(C) postulate
(D) supposition

50. Suppose you want to investigate the working efficiency of nationalised bank in India, which one of the following would you follow ?
(A) Area Sampling
(B) Multi-stage Sampling
(C) Sequential Sampling
(D) Quota Sampling

51. Controlled group condition is applied in
(A) Survey Research
(B) Historical Research
(C) Experimental Research
(D) Descriptive Research

52. Workshops are meant for
(A) giving lectures
(B) multiple target groups
(C) showcase new theories
(D) hands on training/experience

53. Which one of the following is a research tool ?
(A) Graph
(B) Illustration
(C) Questionnaire
(D) Diagram

54. Research is not considered ethical if it
(A) tries to prove a particular point.
(B) does not ensure privacy and anonymity of the respondent.
(C) does not investigate the data scientifically.
(D) is not of a very high standard.

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (Qn. Nos. 55 to 60) :

The catalytic fact of the twentieth century is uncontrollable development, consumerist society, political materialism, and spiritual devaluation. This inordinate development has led to the transcendental ‘second reality’ of sacred perception that biologically transcendence is a part of human life. As the century closes, it dawns with imperative vigour that the ‘first reality’ of enlightened rationalism and the ‘second reality’ of the Beyond have to be harmonised in a worthy state of man. The de facto values describe what we are, they portray the ‘is’ of our ethic, they are est values (Latin est means is). The ideal values tell us what we ought to be, they are esto values (Latin esto ‘ought to be’). Both have to be in the ebb and flow of consciousness. The ever new science and technology and the ever-perennial faith are two modes of one certainty, that is the wholeness of man, his courage to be, his share in Being. The materialistic foundations of science have crumbled down. Science itself has proved that matter is energy, processes are as valid as facts, and affirmed the non-materiality of the universe. The encounter of the ‘two cultures’, the scientific and the humane, will restore the normal vision, and will be the bedrock of a ‘science of understanding’ in the new century. It will give new meaning to the ancient perception that quantity (measure) and quality (value) coexist at the root of nature. Human endeavours cannot afford to be humanistically irresponsible.

55. The problem raised in the passage reflects overall on
(A) Consumerism
(B) Materialism
(C) Spiritual devaluation
(D) Inordinate development
ANS TELL ME. 

56. The ‘de facto’ values in the passage means
(A) What is
(B) What ought to be
(C) What can be
(D) Where it is
ANS TELL ME. 

57. According to the passage, the ‘first reality’ constitutes
(A) Economic prosperity
(B) Political development
(C) Sacred perception of life
(D) Enlightened rationalism
ANS TELL ME. 

58. Encounter of the ‘two cultures’, the scientific and the human implies
(A) Restoration of normal vision
(B) Universe is both material and non-material
(C) Man is superior to nature
(D) Co-existence of quantity and quality in nature
ANS TELL ME. 

59. The contents of the passage are
(A) Descriptive
(B) Prescriptive
(C) Axiomatic
(D) Optional
ANS TELL ME. 

60. The passage indicates that science has proved that
(A) universe is material
(B) matter is energy
(C) nature has abundance
(D) humans are irresponsible
ANS TELL ME. 
IF YOU FIND ANY ANSWER WRONG, COMMENT ME, SO THAT I RIGHT THAT ANS.
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